Back to the 80% which
@kingrollo queried and on which
@midlife commented.
I think this is the BMJ article I read a fortnight ago (my emboldening):
https://www.bmj.com/content/372/bmj.n18
"How effective is just one dose?
A paper published in the
New England Journal of Medicine stated that the efficacy of the
Pfizer-BioNTech vaccine was 52.4% between the first and second dose (spaced 21 days apart).
5 However, in its “green book” Public Health England said that during the phase III trial most of the vaccine failures were in the days immediately after the first dose, indicating that the
short term protection starts around day 10.
6 Looking at the data from day 15 to 21, it calculated that the
efficacy against symptomatic covid-19 was
around 89% (95% confidence interval 52% to 97%). Meanwhile, Pfizer has said that it has no evidence that the protection lasts beyond the 21 days.
In the case of the
Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine, PHE said, “High protection against hospitalisation was seen from 21 days after dose one until two weeks after the second dose, suggesting that a single dose will provide
high short term protection against severe disease . . . An exploratory analysis of participants who had received
one standard dose of the vaccine suggested that
efficacy against symptomatic covid-19
was 73% (95% CI 48.79-85.76%).”
Most of groups 1-4 will or have received the Pfizer-BioNTech vaccine (affects the calculation of 'average'). So might we estimate that the average 'protection' percentage 14 days after the first jab is actually above 80%? I will go back an edit my earlier post